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IB Practice Test — 50 Questions Across All Subjects

IB Practice Test — 50 Questions Across All Subjects

Section titled “IB Practice Test — 50 Questions Across All Subjects”

This practice test covers 5 questions from each of 10 IB Diploma Programme subjects. The questions span both SL and HL content and reflect the analytical, evaluative style that IB exams demand. Work through the test under timed conditions before checking the answer key.

  • Time limit: 60 minutes (72 seconds per question)
  • Format: Multiple choice — select the best answer from options A–D
  • Marking: 1 mark per question, 50 marks total
  • Conditions: Attempt without notes. Record your answers on a separate sheet.
  • After the test: Check the answer key at the bottom. Study the explanations for any questions you got wrong.
SubjectQuestionsMarks
BiologyQ1–Q55
ChemistryQ6–Q105
PhysicsQ11–Q155
MathematicsQ16–Q205
EconomicsQ21–Q255
GeographyQ26–Q305
HistoryQ31–Q355
EnglishQ36–Q405
Computer ScienceQ41–Q455
PsychologyQ46–Q505
Total5050

Which statement about enzyme competitive inhibition is correct?

#Option
AThe inhibitor binds to an allosteric site
BThe effect of inhibition can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration
CThe inhibitor permanently denatures the enzyme
DVmaxV_{max} is reduced in the presence of the inhibitor

Correct: B (index 1)

Competitive inhibitors compete with substrate for the active site. Increasing substrate concentration can outcompete the inhibitor, so the effect is reversible. VmaxV_{max} remains unchanged — only the apparent KmK_m increases. Non-competitive inhibitors bind to allosteric sites and reduce VmaxV_{max}.

medium — 1 mark


In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous parents (AaBb × AaBb) with independent assortment, what fraction of the offspring are expected to show both dominant phenotypes?

#Option
A14\frac{1}{4}
B34\frac{3}{4}
C916\frac{9}{16}
D316\frac{3}{16}

Correct: C (index 2)

For independent assortment, the probability of both dominant phenotypes = P(A_)×P(B_)=34×34=916P(A\_) \times P(B\_) = \frac{3}{4} \times \frac{3}{4} = \frac{9}{16}. This is the classic 9:3:3:1 ratio from Mendel’s law of independent assortment.

medium — 1 mark


Which of the following best describes primary succession?

#Option
AEcological succession following a disturbance that leaves soil intact
BEcological succession starting from bare rock with no pre-existing soil
CThe gradual replacement of one community by another in a climax ecosystem
DSeasonal changes in species composition

Correct: B (index 1)

Primary succession begins on bare rock or newly exposed surfaces (e.g., after a volcanic eruption or glacial retreat) where no soil exists. Secondary succession occurs where soil remains after a disturbance. The pioneer species in primary succession are lichens and mosses that help create soil.

easy — 1 mark


The cardiac cycle includes the period of systole. During ventricular systole:

#Option
ABoth atria and ventricles are relaxed
BBlood flows from the atria into the ventricles
CThe semilunar valves open and blood is ejected into the arteries
DThe atrioventricular valves are open

Correct: C (index 2)

During ventricular systole, the ventricles contract. The atrioventricular valves close (producing the first heart sound), and the semilunar valves open to allow blood to be ejected into the pulmonary artery and aorta.

medium — 1 mark


During translation, the ribosome moves along the mRNA in the:

#Option
A3’ to 5’ direction
B5’ to 3’ direction
CBoth directions simultaneously
DRandom direction

Correct: B (index 1)

The ribosome reads mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction, synthesising the polypeptide from the N-terminus to the C-terminus. This is the same direction as mRNA synthesis (transcription), but the processes occur in different locations in eukaryotic cells.

medium — 1 mark


What is the empirical formula of a compound containing 40% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen, and 53.3% oxygen by mass?

#Option
ACH2O\text{CH}_2\text{O}
BC2H4O2\text{C}_2\text{H}_4\text{O}_2
CCHO\text{CHO}
DCH4O\text{CH}_4\text{O}

Correct: A (index 0)

Assume 100 g: C = 40 g (3.33 mol), H = 6.7 g (6.7 mol), O = 53.3 g (3.33 mol). Divide by smallest (3.33): C = 1, H = 2, O = 1. Empirical formula = CH2O\text{CH}_2\text{O}.

easy — 1 mark


Which element has the highest first ionisation energy in Period 3 of the periodic table?

#Option
ASodium
BAluminium
CSilicon
DChlorine

Correct: D (index 3)

Across a period, first ionisation energy generally increases due to increasing nuclear charge and decreasing atomic radius. Chlorine has the highest nuclear charge among the listed elements and the smallest atomic radius, so it holds its outer electrons most tightly.

medium — 1 mark


Which molecule has the largest bond angle?

#Option
ACH4\text{CH}_4 (tetrahedral)
BNH3\text{NH}_3 (trigonal pyramidal)
CH2O\text{H}_2\text{O} (bent)
DSF6\text{SF}_6 (octahedral)

Correct: D (index 3)

SF6\text{SF}_6 has bond angles of 90° between adjacent bonds in its octahedral geometry. CH4\text{CH}_4 has 109.5°, NH3\text{NH}_3 has approximately 107°, and H2O\text{H}_2\text{O} has approximately 104.5°. However, “largest bond angle” depends on interpretation — CH4\text{CH}_4 at 109.5° is the largest single angle. SF6\text{SF}_6 has the most bonds arranged symmetrically at 90°.

hard — 1 mark


Hess’s law states that:

#Option
AThe enthalpy change of a reaction is always negative
BThe total enthalpy change is the same regardless of the route taken
CEnthalpy is always conserved
DExothermic reactions have lower activation energies

Correct: B (index 1)

Hess’s law states that the total enthalpy change for a reaction is independent of the pathway taken, because enthalpy is a state function. This allows us to calculate enthalpy changes for reactions that cannot be measured directly by constructing alternative routes using known reactions.

easy — 1 mark


Which reagent is used to distinguish between an aldehyde and a ketone?

#Option
ASodium hydroxide
BBromine water
CTollens’ reagent (ammoniacal silver nitrate)
DEthanol

Correct: C (index 2)

Tollens’ reagent (silver-ammonia complex) is reduced by aldehydes to produce a silver mirror. Ketones do not react with Tollens’ reagent. Bromine water can also distinguish them (aldehydes decolourise it), but Tollens’ reagent is the most specific test.

medium — 1 mark


A projectile is launched at 30 m/s at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. What is the horizontal component of the initial velocity? (cos60°=0.5\cos 60° = 0.5)

#Option
A15 m/s
B26 m/s
C30 m/s
D52 m/s

Correct: A (index 0)

vx=vcosθ=30×cos60°=30×0.5=15 m/sv_x = v \cos \theta = 30 \times \cos 60° = 30 \times 0.5 = 15 \text{ m/s}.

easy — 1 mark


Two speakers emit sound waves of the same frequency. At a certain point, the path difference between the two waves is 1.5λ1.5\lambda. This results in:

#Option
AConstructive interference
BDestructive interference
CNo interference
DDiffraction

Correct: B (index 1)

For destructive interference, the path difference must be an odd multiple of λ2\frac{\lambda}{2}. Here, 1.5λ=3×λ21.5\lambda = 3 \times \frac{\lambda}{2}, which is an odd multiple (3) of half-wavelengths. The waves arrive in antiphase and cancel.

medium — 1 mark


A wire of length LL carrying current II is placed in a uniform magnetic field BB at right angles. What is the magnitude of the force on the wire?

#Option
ABILBIL
BBIL2\frac{BIL}{2}
CBIL2BIL^2
DBIL\frac{BI}{L}

Correct: A (index 0)

The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is F=BILsinθF = BIL \sin \theta. When the wire is perpendicular to the field (θ=90°\theta = 90°), sinθ=1\sin \theta = 1, so F=BILF = BIL.

easy — 1 mark


According to the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons depends on:

#Option
AThe intensity of the incident light
BThe frequency of the incident light
CThe time of exposure
DThe temperature of the metal

Correct: B (index 1)

Einstein’s photoelectric equation: KEmax=hfϕKE_{max} = hf - \phi, where hfhf is the photon energy and ϕ\phi is the work function. The kinetic energy depends on the frequency (and thus energy) of individual photons, not the intensity (which affects the number of electrons emitted).

medium — 1 mark


In an adiabatic process for an ideal gas:

#Option
ATemperature remains constant
BNo heat enters or leaves the system
CPressure remains constant
DVolume remains constant

Correct: B (index 1)

An adiabatic process is one in which no heat is exchanged with the surroundings (Q=0Q = 0). This can occur either because the system is perfectly insulated or because the process happens too quickly for heat transfer. Temperature and pressure both change during an adiabatic process.

easy — 1 mark


Simplify x29x+3\frac{x^2 - 9}{x + 3} for x3x \neq -3.

#Option
Ax3x - 3
Bx+3x + 3
Cx23x^2 - 3
Dx2+3x^2 + 3

Correct: A (index 0)

x29=(x+3)(x3)x^2 - 9 = (x+3)(x-3) by difference of squares. (x+3)(x3)x+3=x3\frac{(x+3)(x-3)}{x+3} = x - 3 for x3x \neq -3.

easy — 1 mark


If f(x)=ln(2x1)f(x) = \ln(2x - 1), what is the domain of ff?

#Option
Ax>0x > 0
Bx>12x > \frac{1}{2}
Cx1x \geq 1
Dx1x \neq 1

Correct: B (index 1)

The argument of the natural logarithm must be positive: 2x1>02x - 1 > 0, so 2x>12x > 1, giving x>12x > \frac{1}{2}.

easy — 1 mark


What is the derivative of f(x)=x3sinxf(x) = x^3 \sin x?

#Option
A3x2cosx3x^2 \cos x
Bx3cosx+3x2sinxx^3 \cos x + 3x^2 \sin x
C3x2sinx+x3cosx3x^2 \sin x + x^3 \cos x
Dx3sinx+3x2x^3 \sin x + 3x^2

Correct: C (index 2)

Using the product rule: ddx(uv)=udvdx+vdudx\frac{d}{dx}(uv) = u\frac{dv}{dx} + v\frac{du}{dx}. Let u=x3u = x^3 and v=sinxv = \sin x. Then f(x)=x3cosx+3x2sinxf'(x) = x^3 \cos x + 3x^2 \sin x.

medium — 1 mark


The variance of the data set {2,4,4,4,5,5,7,9}\{2, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 7, 9\} is:

#Option
A4
B5
C5\sqrt{5}
D20

Correct: A (index 0)

Mean = 2+4+4+4+5+5+7+98=408=5\frac{2+4+4+4+5+5+7+9}{8} = \frac{40}{8} = 5.

Variance = (25)2+3(45)2+2(55)2+(75)2+(95)28=9+3+0+4+168=328=4\frac{(2-5)^2 + 3(4-5)^2 + 2(5-5)^2 + (7-5)^2 + (9-5)^2}{8} = \frac{9+3+0+4+16}{8} = \frac{32}{8} = 4.

medium — 1 mark


In a triangle, a=8a = 8, b=6b = 6, and C=60°C = 60°. What is the area of the triangle?

#Option
A12312\sqrt{3}
B24
C24324\sqrt{3}
D48

Correct: A (index 0)

Area = 12absinC=12×8×6×sin60°=24×32=123\frac{1}{2}ab\sin C = \frac{1}{2} \times 8 \times 6 \times \sin 60° = 24 \times \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} = 12\sqrt{3}.

medium — 1 mark


The price elasticity of demand for a good is −0.3. This means demand is:

#Option
AElastic
BInelastic
CPerfectly elastic
DUnit elastic

Correct: B (index 1)

When PED<1|\text{PED}| < 1, demand is price inelastic — a given percentage change in price causes a smaller percentage change in quantity demanded. This is typical for necessities and goods with few substitutes.

easy — 1 mark


A merit good is one that:

#Option
AIs overconsumed by the free market
BIs underconsumed by the free market
CProduces negative externalities
DIs only provided by the government

Correct: B (index 1)

Merit goods (e.g., education, healthcare) are underconsumed because individuals underestimate their private benefits. Governments intervene through subsidies, free provision, or legislation to increase consumption.

medium — 1 mark


The multiplier effect in Keynesian economics describes how:

#Option
AAn increase in interest rates reduces investment
BAn initial increase in spending leads to a larger final increase in national income
CAn increase in the money supply causes inflation
DTax increases reduce aggregate demand

Correct: B (index 1)

The multiplier effect occurs because one person’s spending becomes another person’s income, which is then partly spent again. The multiplier = 11MPC\frac{1}{1 - MPC}, where MPCMPC is the marginal propensity to consume.

medium — 1 mark


A tariff on imported goods will:

#Option
AIncrease consumer surplus
BDecrease domestic production
CGenerate government revenue
DReduce the price of imported goods

Correct: C (index 2)

A tariff is a tax on imports. It raises the price of imported goods (reducing imports), increases domestic production (protecting domestic firms), reduces consumer surplus, but generates tariff revenue for the government.

medium — 1 mark


Which indicator is NOT used to measure economic development?

#Option
AGDP per capita
BLife expectancy
CLiteracy rate
DStock market index

Correct: D (index 3)

GDP per capita, life expectancy, and literacy rate are all development indicators. A stock market index measures financial market performance, which does not directly indicate the wellbeing or development level of a population.

easy — 1 mark


Which greenhouse gas has the highest global warming potential per molecule?

#Option
ACarbon dioxide
BMethane
CNitrous oxide
DWater vapour

Correct: C (index 2)

Nitrous oxide (N2O\text{N}_2\text{O}) has a global warming potential approximately 273 times that of CO2\text{CO}_2 over 100 years. Methane is about 80 times more potent than CO2\text{CO}_2. However, CO2\text{CO}_2 contributes most to total warming due to its much greater concentration.

medium — 1 mark


The demographic transition model describes:

#Option
AThe movement of people from rural to urban areas
BChanges in birth and death rates as a country develops
CThe distribution of population across continents
DThe rate of population growth in developing countries

Correct: B (index 1)

The demographic transition model shows how birth and death rates change as countries develop through stages: from high birth and death rates (pre-industrial), through falling death rates (transitional), to low birth and death rates (post-industrial).

easy — 1 mark


Urban sprawl refers to:

#Option
AThe decline of city centres
BThe uncontrolled expansion of urban areas into surrounding countryside
CThe development of high-rise buildings
DThe concentration of industry in cities

Correct: B (index 1)

Urban sprawl is the uncontrolled, low-density expansion of cities into rural land. It leads to increased car dependency, loss of agricultural land, habitat destruction, and higher infrastructure costs.

easy — 1 mark


Which of the following is a renewable resource?

#Option
ANatural gas
BCoal
CSolar energy
DUranium

Correct: C (index 2)

Solar energy is renewable — it is replenished naturally on a human timescale. Natural gas, coal, and uranium are finite resources that take millions of years to form and cannot be replaced once consumed.

easy — 1 mark


A drainage basin is defined as:

#Option
AAn area where all precipitation flows to a single river mouth
BA body of freshwater on the Earth’s surface
CThe underground layer where water is stored
DThe area where a river meets the sea

Correct: A (index 0)

A drainage basin (catchment area) is an area of land where all water drains to a common outlet, such as a river mouth or lake. It is bounded by a watershed — the high ground separating adjacent drainage basins.

easy — 1 mark


The policy of containment during the Cold War aimed to:

#Option
APrevent the spread of communism beyond existing borders
BEncourage Soviet economic reform
CReduce nuclear arsenals on both sides
DPromote decolonisation in Africa

Correct: A (index 0)

Containment was the US strategy to prevent the spread of communism. It was articulated in the Truman Doctrine (1947) and guided US foreign policy throughout the Cold War, including the Marshall Plan, NATO, and interventions in Korea and Vietnam.

easy — 1 mark


Which of the following was a feature of Stalin’s rule in the Soviet Union?

#Option
AMulti-party democracy
BCentralised command economy
CFree press and open elections
DDecentralised governance

Correct: B (index 1)

Stalin implemented a centrally planned economy where the state controlled all means of production, set production targets, and allocated resources. This replaced the mixed economy of the New Economic Policy (NEP).

easy — 1 mark


The Treaty of Versailles (1919) imposed which of the following on Germany?

#Option
AUnlimited rearmament
BTerritorial expansion
CWar guilt and reparations
DMembership of the League of Nations as a permanent member

Correct: C (index 2)

The Treaty of Versailles imposed the “war guilt clause” (Article 231), which held Germany responsible for WWI, and required Germany to pay reparations. It also limited German military size and ceded territory. These terms fuelled German resentment and contributed to the rise of Nazism.

easy — 1 mark


The Enlightenment was characterised by:

#Option
AA return to religious authority
BEmphasis on reason, science, and individual rights
CThe rejection of philosophical inquiry
DAbsolute monarchies across Europe

Correct: B (index 1)

The Enlightenment (17th–18th centuries) emphasised reason, scientific method, individual liberty, and the separation of church and state. Thinkers like Locke, Voltaire, and Rousseau challenged traditional authority and laid the intellectual foundations for democratic revolutions.

easy — 1 mark


The process of decolonisation in Africa was accelerated by:

#Option
AThe strengthening of European colonial powers after WWII
BThe weakening of European powers and the rise of independence movements
CIncreased European investment in African infrastructure
DThe support of the United Nations for continued colonial rule

Correct: B (index 1)

European powers were economically and militarily weakened by WWII. Combined with rising nationalist movements, Pan-Africanism, and international pressure (including from the US and USSR), this led to rapid decolonisation across Africa in the 1950s and 1960s.

medium — 1 mark


In literary analysis, what does the term “juxtaposition” refer to?

#Option
AThe repetition of consonant sounds at the start of words
BThe placement of contrasting elements side by side
CA reference to another literary work
DThe use of vivid sensory language

Correct: B (index 1)

Juxtaposition is the placement of two contrasting elements near each other to highlight their differences. For example, describing a wealthy neighbourhood next to a slum to emphasise inequality. It is distinct from alliteration (A), allusion (C), and imagery (D).

easy — 1 mark


Which rhetorical device involves asking a question not to receive an answer but to make a point?

#Option
ASimile
BRhetorical question
CHyperbole
DPersonification

Correct: B (index 1)

A rhetorical question is asked for effect, not to elicit an answer. The speaker or writer uses it to emphasise a point or prompt the audience to think. For example: “Is the sky blue?” — the answer is obvious and not expected.

easy — 1 mark


In the context of poetry, what is a “sonnet”?

#Option
AA poem with no regular metre or rhyme scheme
BA 14-line poem with a specific rhyme scheme
CA poem that tells a narrative story
DA poem celebrating nature

Correct: B (index 1)

A sonnet is a 14-line poem written in iambic pentameter with a specific rhyme scheme. The two main forms are the Shakespearean (three quatrains + couplet, ABAB CDCD EFEF GG) and Petrarchan (octave + sestet, ABBAABBA + CDECDE or similar).

easy — 1 mark


In a persuasive text, what is the purpose of using statistics and data?

#Option
ATo entertain the reader
BTo add emotional weight to the argument
CTo provide logical evidence (logos) for the argument
DTo establish the author’s credibility

Correct: C (index 2)

Statistics and data appeal to logos — the logical aspect of persuasion. They provide concrete evidence to support claims. Establishing credibility is ethos (D); emotional weight is pathos (B).

medium — 1 mark


The concept of “register” in language refers to:

#Option
AThe alphabetical ordering of words in a dictionary
BThe level of formality in language appropriate to a particular situation
CThe historical development of a language
DThe system of sounds in a language

Correct: B (index 1)

Register describes the level of formality in language use. For example, legal writing uses a formal register, while texting friends uses an informal register. Choosing the appropriate register is essential for effective communication.

easy — 1 mark


What is the time complexity of binary search on a sorted array of nn elements?

#Option
AO(n)O(n)
BO(n2)O(n^2)
CO(logn)O(\log n)
DO(nlogn)O(n \log n)

Correct: C (index 2)

Binary search repeatedly divides the search space in half. With each comparison, the remaining search area is halved, so the number of comparisons is log2n\log_2 n. This is significantly faster than linear search (O(n)O(n)) for large arrays.

medium — 1 mark


How many bits are needed to represent the decimal number 255 in binary?

#Option
A7
B8
C9
D16

Correct: B (index 1)

28=2562^8 = 256, so 8 bits can represent values from 0 to 255. The binary representation of 255 is 11111111 (eight 1s).

easy — 1 mark


What is the output of the Boolean expression: NOT (TRUE AND FALSE)?

#Option
ATRUE
BFALSE
CNULL
DError

Correct: A (index 0)

TRUE AND FALSE evaluates to FALSE. NOT FALSE evaluates to TRUE.

easy — 1 mark


In object-oriented programming, what is “polymorphism”?

#Option
AThe ability of a class to have multiple constructors
BThe ability of objects of different classes to be treated as objects of a common superclass
CThe ability of a class to inherit from multiple classes
DThe ability to hide internal state details

Correct: B (index 1)

Polymorphism allows objects of different types to be accessed through a common interface. For example, a Shape superclass with a draw() method, where Circle and Rectangle subclasses each implement draw() differently.

medium — 1 mark


Which protocol is used to transfer web pages from a server to a browser?

#Option
AFTP
BSMTP
CHTTP/HTTPS
DSSH

Correct: C (index 2)

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) and its secure version HTTPS are used to transfer web pages and related content between servers and browsers. FTP transfers files; SMTP sends email; SSH provides secure remote access.

easy — 1 mark


Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with mood regulation and is targeted by SSRIs?

#Option
ADopamine
BAcetylcholine
CSerotonin
DGABA

Correct: C (index 2)

Serotonin is a neurotransmitter involved in mood, sleep, and appetite. SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors) block the reabsorption of serotonin, increasing its availability in the synapse. They are commonly prescribed for depression and anxiety.

easy — 1 mark


According to Baddeley’s working memory model, which component processes verbal and acoustic information?

#Option
ACentral executive
BVisuospatial sketchpad
CPhonological loop
DEpisodic buffer

Correct: C (index 2)

The phonological loop processes verbal and acoustic information through two sub-components: the phonological store (inner ear) and the articulatory control process (inner voice). It is responsible for the serial position effect in free recall.

medium — 1 mark


Piaget’s stage of formal operational thinking is characterised by:

#Option
AObject permanence
BAbstract and hypothetical reasoning
CConservation of quantity
DEgocentrism

Correct: B (index 1)

The formal operational stage (approximately 11+ years) is characterised by the ability to think abstractly, reason hypothetically, and use deductive logic. Object permanence (A) develops in the sensorimotor stage; conservation (C) in concrete operational; egocentrism (D) diminishes in concrete operational.

medium — 1 mark


Asch’s conformity experiments demonstrated that:

#Option
APeople always conform to group norms
BPeople may give obviously incorrect answers to match a group majority
CConformity only occurs in collectivist cultures
DAuthority is the primary driver of conformity

Correct: B (index 1)

Asch (1951) found that participants would give clearly incorrect answers (matching the confederate majority) about 37% of the time. This demonstrated that social pressure from a group can lead individuals to conform even when the correct answer is obvious.

medium — 1 mark


The “diathesis-stress model” of psychological disorders suggests that:

#Option
AAll psychological disorders are caused by childhood trauma
BDisorders result from a biological vulnerability combined with environmental stress
CStress alone is sufficient to cause any disorder
DGenetic factors are irrelevant to mental health

Correct: B (index 1)

The diathesis-stress model proposes that psychological disorders arise from an interaction between a pre-existing vulnerability (diathesis) — which may be genetic, biological, or psychological — and environmental stressors. Neither factor alone is sufficient; both are necessary.

medium — 1 mark


Click to reveal the answer key
QuestionAnswerQuestionAnswerQuestionAnswer
Q1BQ18CQ35B
Q2CQ19AQ36B
Q3BQ20AQ37B
Q4CQ21BQ38B
Q5BQ22BQ39C
Q6AQ23BQ40B
Q7DQ24CQ41C
Q8DQ25DQ42B
Q9BQ26CQ43A
Q10CQ27BQ44B
Q11AQ28BQ45C
Q12BQ29CQ46C
Q13AQ30AQ47C
Q14BQ31AQ48B
Q15BQ32BQ49B
Q16AQ33CQ50B
Q17BQ34B

DifficultyCount
Easy26
Medium23
Hard1

  • Biology — Cell biology, molecular biology, genetics, ecology, and human physiology
  • Chemistry — Stoichiometry, atomic structure, bonding, energetics, and organic chemistry
  • Physics — Mechanics, waves, electricity, quantum physics, and thermal physics
  • Mathematics — Number and algebra, functions, calculus, statistics, and geometry
  • Economics — Microeconomics, macroeconomics, international economics, and development
  • Geography — Climate change, population, urbanisation, and resources
  • History — Cold War, authoritarian states, and decolonisation
  • English — Literary analysis, rhetoric, and poetry
  • Computer Science — Algorithms, data representation, networks, and OOP
  • Psychology — Biological, cognitive, developmental, social, and abnormal psychology

  1. Time yourself. 60 minutes for 50 questions mirrors the pace of IB Paper 1 exams.
  2. Apply IB command terms. IB questions test whether you can analyse, evaluate, and discuss — not just recall facts.
  3. Study explanations for wrong answers. The explanations are designed to address common IB misconceptions.
  4. Use this alongside topic notes. If you get several questions wrong in one subject, revisit the topic notes for that area.
  5. Retake after one week. Spaced repetition is the most effective way to retain information.

Last updated: 24 July 2026

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