IB Practice Test — 50 Questions Across All Subjects
IB Practice Test — 50 Questions Across All Subjects
Section titled “IB Practice Test — 50 Questions Across All Subjects”This practice test covers 5 questions from each of 10 IB Diploma Programme subjects. The questions span both SL and HL content and reflect the analytical, evaluative style that IB exams demand. Work through the test under timed conditions before checking the answer key.
Instructions
Section titled “Instructions”- Time limit: 60 minutes (72 seconds per question)
- Format: Multiple choice — select the best answer from options A–D
- Marking: 1 mark per question, 50 marks total
- Conditions: Attempt without notes. Record your answers on a separate sheet.
- After the test: Check the answer key at the bottom. Study the explanations for any questions you got wrong.
| Subject | Questions | Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Biology | Q1–Q5 | 5 |
| Chemistry | Q6–Q10 | 5 |
| Physics | Q11–Q15 | 5 |
| Mathematics | Q16–Q20 | 5 |
| Economics | Q21–Q25 | 5 |
| Geography | Q26–Q30 | 5 |
| History | Q31–Q35 | 5 |
| English | Q36–Q40 | 5 |
| Computer Science | Q41–Q45 | 5 |
| Psychology | Q46–Q50 | 5 |
| Total | 50 | 50 |
Biology (Q1–Q5)
Section titled “Biology (Q1–Q5)”Q1 — Cell Biology
Section titled “Q1 — Cell Biology”Which statement about enzyme competitive inhibition is correct?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | The inhibitor binds to an allosteric site |
| B | The effect of inhibition can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration |
| C | The inhibitor permanently denatures the enzyme |
| D | is reduced in the presence of the inhibitor |
Correct: B (index 1)
Competitive inhibitors compete with substrate for the active site. Increasing substrate concentration can outcompete the inhibitor, so the effect is reversible. remains unchanged — only the apparent increases. Non-competitive inhibitors bind to allosteric sites and reduce .
medium — 1 mark
Q2 — Genetics
Section titled “Q2 — Genetics”In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous parents (AaBb × AaBb) with independent assortment, what fraction of the offspring are expected to show both dominant phenotypes?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | |
| B | |
| C | |
| D |
Correct: C (index 2)
For independent assortment, the probability of both dominant phenotypes = . This is the classic 9:3:3:1 ratio from Mendel’s law of independent assortment.
medium — 1 mark
Q3 — Ecology
Section titled “Q3 — Ecology”Which of the following best describes primary succession?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Ecological succession following a disturbance that leaves soil intact |
| B | Ecological succession starting from bare rock with no pre-existing soil |
| C | The gradual replacement of one community by another in a climax ecosystem |
| D | Seasonal changes in species composition |
Correct: B (index 1)
Primary succession begins on bare rock or newly exposed surfaces (e.g., after a volcanic eruption or glacial retreat) where no soil exists. Secondary succession occurs where soil remains after a disturbance. The pioneer species in primary succession are lichens and mosses that help create soil.
easy — 1 mark
Q4 — Human Physiology
Section titled “Q4 — Human Physiology”The cardiac cycle includes the period of systole. During ventricular systole:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Both atria and ventricles are relaxed |
| B | Blood flows from the atria into the ventricles |
| C | The semilunar valves open and blood is ejected into the arteries |
| D | The atrioventricular valves are open |
Correct: C (index 2)
During ventricular systole, the ventricles contract. The atrioventricular valves close (producing the first heart sound), and the semilunar valves open to allow blood to be ejected into the pulmonary artery and aorta.
medium — 1 mark
Q5 — Molecular Biology
Section titled “Q5 — Molecular Biology”During translation, the ribosome moves along the mRNA in the:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | 3’ to 5’ direction |
| B | 5’ to 3’ direction |
| C | Both directions simultaneously |
| D | Random direction |
Correct: B (index 1)
The ribosome reads mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction, synthesising the polypeptide from the N-terminus to the C-terminus. This is the same direction as mRNA synthesis (transcription), but the processes occur in different locations in eukaryotic cells.
medium — 1 mark
Chemistry (Q6–Q10)
Section titled “Chemistry (Q6–Q10)”Q6 — Stoichiometry
Section titled “Q6 — Stoichiometry”What is the empirical formula of a compound containing 40% carbon, 6.7% hydrogen, and 53.3% oxygen by mass?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | |
| B | |
| C | |
| D |
Correct: A (index 0)
Assume 100 g: C = 40 g (3.33 mol), H = 6.7 g (6.7 mol), O = 53.3 g (3.33 mol). Divide by smallest (3.33): C = 1, H = 2, O = 1. Empirical formula = .
easy — 1 mark
Q7 — Atomic Structure
Section titled “Q7 — Atomic Structure”Which element has the highest first ionisation energy in Period 3 of the periodic table?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Sodium |
| B | Aluminium |
| C | Silicon |
| D | Chlorine |
Correct: D (index 3)
Across a period, first ionisation energy generally increases due to increasing nuclear charge and decreasing atomic radius. Chlorine has the highest nuclear charge among the listed elements and the smallest atomic radius, so it holds its outer electrons most tightly.
medium — 1 mark
Q8 — Chemical Bonding
Section titled “Q8 — Chemical Bonding”Which molecule has the largest bond angle?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | (tetrahedral) |
| B | (trigonal pyramidal) |
| C | (bent) |
| D | (octahedral) |
Correct: D (index 3)
has bond angles of 90° between adjacent bonds in its octahedral geometry. has 109.5°, has approximately 107°, and has approximately 104.5°. However, “largest bond angle” depends on interpretation — at 109.5° is the largest single angle. has the most bonds arranged symmetrically at 90°.
hard — 1 mark
Q9 — Energetics
Section titled “Q9 — Energetics”Hess’s law states that:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | The enthalpy change of a reaction is always negative |
| B | The total enthalpy change is the same regardless of the route taken |
| C | Enthalpy is always conserved |
| D | Exothermic reactions have lower activation energies |
Correct: B (index 1)
Hess’s law states that the total enthalpy change for a reaction is independent of the pathway taken, because enthalpy is a state function. This allows us to calculate enthalpy changes for reactions that cannot be measured directly by constructing alternative routes using known reactions.
easy — 1 mark
Q10 — Organic Chemistry
Section titled “Q10 — Organic Chemistry”Which reagent is used to distinguish between an aldehyde and a ketone?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Sodium hydroxide |
| B | Bromine water |
| C | Tollens’ reagent (ammoniacal silver nitrate) |
| D | Ethanol |
Correct: C (index 2)
Tollens’ reagent (silver-ammonia complex) is reduced by aldehydes to produce a silver mirror. Ketones do not react with Tollens’ reagent. Bromine water can also distinguish them (aldehydes decolourise it), but Tollens’ reagent is the most specific test.
medium — 1 mark
Physics (Q11–Q15)
Section titled “Physics (Q11–Q15)”Q11 — Mechanics
Section titled “Q11 — Mechanics”A projectile is launched at 30 m/s at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. What is the horizontal component of the initial velocity? ()
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | 15 m/s |
| B | 26 m/s |
| C | 30 m/s |
| D | 52 m/s |
Correct: A (index 0)
.
easy — 1 mark
Q12 — Waves
Section titled “Q12 — Waves”Two speakers emit sound waves of the same frequency. At a certain point, the path difference between the two waves is . This results in:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Constructive interference |
| B | Destructive interference |
| C | No interference |
| D | Diffraction |
Correct: B (index 1)
For destructive interference, the path difference must be an odd multiple of . Here, , which is an odd multiple (3) of half-wavelengths. The waves arrive in antiphase and cancel.
medium — 1 mark
Q13 — Electricity and Magnetism
Section titled “Q13 — Electricity and Magnetism”A wire of length carrying current is placed in a uniform magnetic field at right angles. What is the magnitude of the force on the wire?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | |
| B | |
| C | |
| D |
Correct: A (index 0)
The force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field is . When the wire is perpendicular to the field (), , so .
easy — 1 mark
Q14 — Quantum Physics
Section titled “Q14 — Quantum Physics”According to the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons depends on:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | The intensity of the incident light |
| B | The frequency of the incident light |
| C | The time of exposure |
| D | The temperature of the metal |
Correct: B (index 1)
Einstein’s photoelectric equation: , where is the photon energy and is the work function. The kinetic energy depends on the frequency (and thus energy) of individual photons, not the intensity (which affects the number of electrons emitted).
medium — 1 mark
Q15 — Thermal Physics
Section titled “Q15 — Thermal Physics”In an adiabatic process for an ideal gas:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Temperature remains constant |
| B | No heat enters or leaves the system |
| C | Pressure remains constant |
| D | Volume remains constant |
Correct: B (index 1)
An adiabatic process is one in which no heat is exchanged with the surroundings (). This can occur either because the system is perfectly insulated or because the process happens too quickly for heat transfer. Temperature and pressure both change during an adiabatic process.
easy — 1 mark
Mathematics (Q16–Q20)
Section titled “Mathematics (Q16–Q20)”Q16 — Number and Algebra
Section titled “Q16 — Number and Algebra”Simplify for .
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | |
| B | |
| C | |
| D |
Correct: A (index 0)
by difference of squares. for .
easy — 1 mark
Q17 — Functions
Section titled “Q17 — Functions”If , what is the domain of ?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | |
| B | |
| C | |
| D |
Correct: B (index 1)
The argument of the natural logarithm must be positive: , so , giving .
easy — 1 mark
Q18 — Calculus
Section titled “Q18 — Calculus”What is the derivative of ?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | |
| B | |
| C | |
| D |
Correct: C (index 2)
Using the product rule: . Let and . Then .
medium — 1 mark
Q19 — Statistics and Probability
Section titled “Q19 — Statistics and Probability”The variance of the data set is:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | 4 |
| B | 5 |
| C | |
| D | 20 |
Correct: A (index 0)
Mean = .
Variance = .
medium — 1 mark
Q20 — Geometry and Trigonometry
Section titled “Q20 — Geometry and Trigonometry”In a triangle, , , and . What is the area of the triangle?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | |
| B | 24 |
| C | |
| D | 48 |
Correct: A (index 0)
Area = .
medium — 1 mark
Economics (Q21–Q25)
Section titled “Economics (Q21–Q25)”Q21 — Microeconomics
Section titled “Q21 — Microeconomics”The price elasticity of demand for a good is −0.3. This means demand is:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Elastic |
| B | Inelastic |
| C | Perfectly elastic |
| D | Unit elastic |
Correct: B (index 1)
When , demand is price inelastic — a given percentage change in price causes a smaller percentage change in quantity demanded. This is typical for necessities and goods with few substitutes.
easy — 1 mark
Q22 — Market Failure
Section titled “Q22 — Market Failure”A merit good is one that:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Is overconsumed by the free market |
| B | Is underconsumed by the free market |
| C | Produces negative externalities |
| D | Is only provided by the government |
Correct: B (index 1)
Merit goods (e.g., education, healthcare) are underconsumed because individuals underestimate their private benefits. Governments intervene through subsidies, free provision, or legislation to increase consumption.
medium — 1 mark
Q23 — Macroeconomics
Section titled “Q23 — Macroeconomics”The multiplier effect in Keynesian economics describes how:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | An increase in interest rates reduces investment |
| B | An initial increase in spending leads to a larger final increase in national income |
| C | An increase in the money supply causes inflation |
| D | Tax increases reduce aggregate demand |
Correct: B (index 1)
The multiplier effect occurs because one person’s spending becomes another person’s income, which is then partly spent again. The multiplier = , where is the marginal propensity to consume.
medium — 1 mark
Q24 — International Economics
Section titled “Q24 — International Economics”A tariff on imported goods will:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Increase consumer surplus |
| B | Decrease domestic production |
| C | Generate government revenue |
| D | Reduce the price of imported goods |
Correct: C (index 2)
A tariff is a tax on imports. It raises the price of imported goods (reducing imports), increases domestic production (protecting domestic firms), reduces consumer surplus, but generates tariff revenue for the government.
medium — 1 mark
Q25 — Development Economics
Section titled “Q25 — Development Economics”Which indicator is NOT used to measure economic development?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | GDP per capita |
| B | Life expectancy |
| C | Literacy rate |
| D | Stock market index |
Correct: D (index 3)
GDP per capita, life expectancy, and literacy rate are all development indicators. A stock market index measures financial market performance, which does not directly indicate the wellbeing or development level of a population.
easy — 1 mark
Geography (Q26–Q30)
Section titled “Geography (Q26–Q30)”Q26 — Climate Change
Section titled “Q26 — Climate Change”Which greenhouse gas has the highest global warming potential per molecule?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Carbon dioxide |
| B | Methane |
| C | Nitrous oxide |
| D | Water vapour |
Correct: C (index 2)
Nitrous oxide () has a global warming potential approximately 273 times that of over 100 years. Methane is about 80 times more potent than . However, contributes most to total warming due to its much greater concentration.
medium — 1 mark
Q27 — Population
Section titled “Q27 — Population”The demographic transition model describes:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | The movement of people from rural to urban areas |
| B | Changes in birth and death rates as a country develops |
| C | The distribution of population across continents |
| D | The rate of population growth in developing countries |
Correct: B (index 1)
The demographic transition model shows how birth and death rates change as countries develop through stages: from high birth and death rates (pre-industrial), through falling death rates (transitional), to low birth and death rates (post-industrial).
easy — 1 mark
Q28 — Urbanisation
Section titled “Q28 — Urbanisation”Urban sprawl refers to:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | The decline of city centres |
| B | The uncontrolled expansion of urban areas into surrounding countryside |
| C | The development of high-rise buildings |
| D | The concentration of industry in cities |
Correct: B (index 1)
Urban sprawl is the uncontrolled, low-density expansion of cities into rural land. It leads to increased car dependency, loss of agricultural land, habitat destruction, and higher infrastructure costs.
easy — 1 mark
Q29 — Resources
Section titled “Q29 — Resources”Which of the following is a renewable resource?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Natural gas |
| B | Coal |
| C | Solar energy |
| D | Uranium |
Correct: C (index 2)
Solar energy is renewable — it is replenished naturally on a human timescale. Natural gas, coal, and uranium are finite resources that take millions of years to form and cannot be replaced once consumed.
easy — 1 mark
Q30 — Freshwater
Section titled “Q30 — Freshwater”A drainage basin is defined as:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | An area where all precipitation flows to a single river mouth |
| B | A body of freshwater on the Earth’s surface |
| C | The underground layer where water is stored |
| D | The area where a river meets the sea |
Correct: A (index 0)
A drainage basin (catchment area) is an area of land where all water drains to a common outlet, such as a river mouth or lake. It is bounded by a watershed — the high ground separating adjacent drainage basins.
easy — 1 mark
History (Q31–Q35)
Section titled “History (Q31–Q35)”Q31 — Cold War
Section titled “Q31 — Cold War”The policy of containment during the Cold War aimed to:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Prevent the spread of communism beyond existing borders |
| B | Encourage Soviet economic reform |
| C | Reduce nuclear arsenals on both sides |
| D | Promote decolonisation in Africa |
Correct: A (index 0)
Containment was the US strategy to prevent the spread of communism. It was articulated in the Truman Doctrine (1947) and guided US foreign policy throughout the Cold War, including the Marshall Plan, NATO, and interventions in Korea and Vietnam.
easy — 1 mark
Q32 — Authoritarian States
Section titled “Q32 — Authoritarian States”Which of the following was a feature of Stalin’s rule in the Soviet Union?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Multi-party democracy |
| B | Centralised command economy |
| C | Free press and open elections |
| D | Decentralised governance |
Correct: B (index 1)
Stalin implemented a centrally planned economy where the state controlled all means of production, set production targets, and allocated resources. This replaced the mixed economy of the New Economic Policy (NEP).
easy — 1 mark
Q33 — 20th Century World History
Section titled “Q33 — 20th Century World History”The Treaty of Versailles (1919) imposed which of the following on Germany?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Unlimited rearmament |
| B | Territorial expansion |
| C | War guilt and reparations |
| D | Membership of the League of Nations as a permanent member |
Correct: C (index 2)
The Treaty of Versailles imposed the “war guilt clause” (Article 231), which held Germany responsible for WWI, and required Germany to pay reparations. It also limited German military size and ceded territory. These terms fuelled German resentment and contributed to the rise of Nazism.
easy — 1 mark
Q34 — European History
Section titled “Q34 — European History”The Enlightenment was characterised by:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | A return to religious authority |
| B | Emphasis on reason, science, and individual rights |
| C | The rejection of philosophical inquiry |
| D | Absolute monarchies across Europe |
Correct: B (index 1)
The Enlightenment (17th–18th centuries) emphasised reason, scientific method, individual liberty, and the separation of church and state. Thinkers like Locke, Voltaire, and Rousseau challenged traditional authority and laid the intellectual foundations for democratic revolutions.
easy — 1 mark
Q35 — Decolonisation
Section titled “Q35 — Decolonisation”The process of decolonisation in Africa was accelerated by:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | The strengthening of European colonial powers after WWII |
| B | The weakening of European powers and the rise of independence movements |
| C | Increased European investment in African infrastructure |
| D | The support of the United Nations for continued colonial rule |
Correct: B (index 1)
European powers were economically and militarily weakened by WWII. Combined with rising nationalist movements, Pan-Africanism, and international pressure (including from the US and USSR), this led to rapid decolonisation across Africa in the 1950s and 1960s.
medium — 1 mark
English (Q36–Q40)
Section titled “English (Q36–Q40)”Q36 — Literary Analysis
Section titled “Q36 — Literary Analysis”In literary analysis, what does the term “juxtaposition” refer to?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | The repetition of consonant sounds at the start of words |
| B | The placement of contrasting elements side by side |
| C | A reference to another literary work |
| D | The use of vivid sensory language |
Correct: B (index 1)
Juxtaposition is the placement of two contrasting elements near each other to highlight their differences. For example, describing a wealthy neighbourhood next to a slum to emphasise inequality. It is distinct from alliteration (A), allusion (C), and imagery (D).
easy — 1 mark
Q37 — Rhetoric
Section titled “Q37 — Rhetoric”Which rhetorical device involves asking a question not to receive an answer but to make a point?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Simile |
| B | Rhetorical question |
| C | Hyperbole |
| D | Personification |
Correct: B (index 1)
A rhetorical question is asked for effect, not to elicit an answer. The speaker or writer uses it to emphasise a point or prompt the audience to think. For example: “Is the sky blue?” — the answer is obvious and not expected.
easy — 1 mark
Q38 — Poetry
Section titled “Q38 — Poetry”In the context of poetry, what is a “sonnet”?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | A poem with no regular metre or rhyme scheme |
| B | A 14-line poem with a specific rhyme scheme |
| C | A poem that tells a narrative story |
| D | A poem celebrating nature |
Correct: B (index 1)
A sonnet is a 14-line poem written in iambic pentameter with a specific rhyme scheme. The two main forms are the Shakespearean (three quatrains + couplet, ABAB CDCD EFEF GG) and Petrarchan (octave + sestet, ABBAABBA + CDECDE or similar).
easy — 1 mark
Q39 — Non-Literary Texts
Section titled “Q39 — Non-Literary Texts”In a persuasive text, what is the purpose of using statistics and data?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | To entertain the reader |
| B | To add emotional weight to the argument |
| C | To provide logical evidence (logos) for the argument |
| D | To establish the author’s credibility |
Correct: C (index 2)
Statistics and data appeal to logos — the logical aspect of persuasion. They provide concrete evidence to support claims. Establishing credibility is ethos (D); emotional weight is pathos (B).
medium — 1 mark
Q40 — Language Analysis
Section titled “Q40 — Language Analysis”The concept of “register” in language refers to:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | The alphabetical ordering of words in a dictionary |
| B | The level of formality in language appropriate to a particular situation |
| C | The historical development of a language |
| D | The system of sounds in a language |
Correct: B (index 1)
Register describes the level of formality in language use. For example, legal writing uses a formal register, while texting friends uses an informal register. Choosing the appropriate register is essential for effective communication.
easy — 1 mark
Computer Science (Q41–Q45)
Section titled “Computer Science (Q41–Q45)”Q41 — Algorithms
Section titled “Q41 — Algorithms”What is the time complexity of binary search on a sorted array of elements?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | |
| B | |
| C | |
| D |
Correct: C (index 2)
Binary search repeatedly divides the search space in half. With each comparison, the remaining search area is halved, so the number of comparisons is . This is significantly faster than linear search () for large arrays.
medium — 1 mark
Q42 — Data Representation
Section titled “Q42 — Data Representation”How many bits are needed to represent the decimal number 255 in binary?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | 7 |
| B | 8 |
| C | 9 |
| D | 16 |
Correct: B (index 1)
, so 8 bits can represent values from 0 to 255. The binary representation of 255 is 11111111 (eight 1s).
easy — 1 mark
Q43 — Boolean Logic
Section titled “Q43 — Boolean Logic”What is the output of the Boolean expression: NOT (TRUE AND FALSE)?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | TRUE |
| B | FALSE |
| C | NULL |
| D | Error |
Correct: A (index 0)
TRUE AND FALSE evaluates to FALSE. NOT FALSE evaluates to TRUE.
easy — 1 mark
Q44 — Programming
Section titled “Q44 — Programming”In object-oriented programming, what is “polymorphism”?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | The ability of a class to have multiple constructors |
| B | The ability of objects of different classes to be treated as objects of a common superclass |
| C | The ability of a class to inherit from multiple classes |
| D | The ability to hide internal state details |
Correct: B (index 1)
Polymorphism allows objects of different types to be accessed through a common interface. For example, a Shape superclass with a draw() method, where Circle and Rectangle subclasses each implement draw() differently.
medium — 1 mark
Q45 — Networks
Section titled “Q45 — Networks”Which protocol is used to transfer web pages from a server to a browser?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | FTP |
| B | SMTP |
| C | HTTP/HTTPS |
| D | SSH |
Correct: C (index 2)
HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) and its secure version HTTPS are used to transfer web pages and related content between servers and browsers. FTP transfers files; SMTP sends email; SSH provides secure remote access.
easy — 1 mark
Psychology (Q46–Q50)
Section titled “Psychology (Q46–Q50)”Q46 — Biological Psychology
Section titled “Q46 — Biological Psychology”Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with mood regulation and is targeted by SSRIs?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Dopamine |
| B | Acetylcholine |
| C | Serotonin |
| D | GABA |
Correct: C (index 2)
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter involved in mood, sleep, and appetite. SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors) block the reabsorption of serotonin, increasing its availability in the synapse. They are commonly prescribed for depression and anxiety.
easy — 1 mark
Q47 — Cognitive Psychology
Section titled “Q47 — Cognitive Psychology”According to Baddeley’s working memory model, which component processes verbal and acoustic information?
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Central executive |
| B | Visuospatial sketchpad |
| C | Phonological loop |
| D | Episodic buffer |
Correct: C (index 2)
The phonological loop processes verbal and acoustic information through two sub-components: the phonological store (inner ear) and the articulatory control process (inner voice). It is responsible for the serial position effect in free recall.
medium — 1 mark
Q48 — Developmental Psychology
Section titled “Q48 — Developmental Psychology”Piaget’s stage of formal operational thinking is characterised by:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | Object permanence |
| B | Abstract and hypothetical reasoning |
| C | Conservation of quantity |
| D | Egocentrism |
Correct: B (index 1)
The formal operational stage (approximately 11+ years) is characterised by the ability to think abstractly, reason hypothetically, and use deductive logic. Object permanence (A) develops in the sensorimotor stage; conservation (C) in concrete operational; egocentrism (D) diminishes in concrete operational.
medium — 1 mark
Q49 — Social Psychology
Section titled “Q49 — Social Psychology”Asch’s conformity experiments demonstrated that:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | People always conform to group norms |
| B | People may give obviously incorrect answers to match a group majority |
| C | Conformity only occurs in collectivist cultures |
| D | Authority is the primary driver of conformity |
Correct: B (index 1)
Asch (1951) found that participants would give clearly incorrect answers (matching the confederate majority) about 37% of the time. This demonstrated that social pressure from a group can lead individuals to conform even when the correct answer is obvious.
medium — 1 mark
Q50 — Abnormal Psychology
Section titled “Q50 — Abnormal Psychology”The “diathesis-stress model” of psychological disorders suggests that:
| # | Option |
|---|---|
| A | All psychological disorders are caused by childhood trauma |
| B | Disorders result from a biological vulnerability combined with environmental stress |
| C | Stress alone is sufficient to cause any disorder |
| D | Genetic factors are irrelevant to mental health |
Correct: B (index 1)
The diathesis-stress model proposes that psychological disorders arise from an interaction between a pre-existing vulnerability (diathesis) — which may be genetic, biological, or psychological — and environmental stressors. Neither factor alone is sufficient; both are necessary.
medium — 1 mark
Answer Key
Section titled “Answer Key”Click to reveal the answer key
| Question | Answer | Question | Answer | Question | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Q1 | B | Q18 | C | Q35 | B |
| Q2 | C | Q19 | A | Q36 | B |
| Q3 | B | Q20 | A | Q37 | B |
| Q4 | C | Q21 | B | Q38 | B |
| Q5 | B | Q22 | B | Q39 | C |
| Q6 | A | Q23 | B | Q40 | B |
| Q7 | D | Q24 | C | Q41 | C |
| Q8 | D | Q25 | D | Q42 | B |
| Q9 | B | Q26 | C | Q43 | A |
| Q10 | C | Q27 | B | Q44 | B |
| Q11 | A | Q28 | B | Q45 | C |
| Q12 | B | Q29 | C | Q46 | C |
| Q13 | A | Q30 | A | Q47 | C |
| Q14 | B | Q31 | A | Q48 | B |
| Q15 | B | Q32 | B | Q49 | B |
| Q16 | A | Q33 | C | Q50 | B |
| Q17 | B | Q34 | B |
Difficulty Breakdown
Section titled “Difficulty Breakdown”| Difficulty | Count |
|---|---|
| Easy | 26 |
| Medium | 23 |
| Hard | 1 |
Cross-References
Section titled “Cross-References”- Biology — Cell biology, molecular biology, genetics, ecology, and human physiology
- Chemistry — Stoichiometry, atomic structure, bonding, energetics, and organic chemistry
- Physics — Mechanics, waves, electricity, quantum physics, and thermal physics
- Mathematics — Number and algebra, functions, calculus, statistics, and geometry
- Economics — Microeconomics, macroeconomics, international economics, and development
- Geography — Climate change, population, urbanisation, and resources
- History — Cold War, authoritarian states, and decolonisation
- English — Literary analysis, rhetoric, and poetry
- Computer Science — Algorithms, data representation, networks, and OOP
- Psychology — Biological, cognitive, developmental, social, and abnormal psychology
Tips for Using This Practice Test
Section titled “Tips for Using This Practice Test”- Time yourself. 60 minutes for 50 questions mirrors the pace of IB Paper 1 exams.
- Apply IB command terms. IB questions test whether you can analyse, evaluate, and discuss — not just recall facts.
- Study explanations for wrong answers. The explanations are designed to address common IB misconceptions.
- Use this alongside topic notes. If you get several questions wrong in one subject, revisit the topic notes for that area.
- Retake after one week. Spaced repetition is the most effective way to retain information.
Last updated: 24 July 2026
Written by Wyatt. For questions or feedback, visit wyattau.com.